In all seriousness, either your knowledge of Kant is not that great, or you haven't been following the discussion. Proposing a transcendental argument against naturalism is not the same as arguing that transcendental idealism "defeats" atheism.
I've been following the discussion.
Indeed, at one point you were out saying things like this:
I'm not saying that we should adopt theism, but I am suggesting that the five transcendental conditions I mentioned are easily accounted for under theism.
And then, a number of posts later, you arrived at this:
I have argued that the transcendental conditions governing the scientific method cannot be accounted for under atheism, which I have been using interchangeably with materialism and naturalism. By implication I am claiming that it would be problematic for someone to be both an atheist and a neuroscientist.
Apparently your overweening confidence in this claim about atheism (a term which you clearly state that you swapped in for materialism and naturalism) is based on transcendental idealism.
Yes, I've been following the discussion.
Neither base naturalism nor a more refined version of naturalism influenced by Kant's transcendental idealism (e.g., Wilfrid Sellars) can account for the uniformity of nature or the reliability of the scientific method.
You would've been able to see this if you'd actually read my reply concerning Meillassoux's critique of correlationism.
Your reply was just some bald assertions which I disagree with. I do note these sentences:
Was it not obvious as well as absurd to begin with that the categories of thought cannot be transcendentally grounded in a finite subject without refuting itself? I personally discovered this from my reading of Schopenhauer who tried to combine Kant's transcendental idealism with a rudimentary form of evolution.
So I'm not the only one simply stating that something is obvious.
On Speculative Realism, I've read far more of Harman than the others. The following probably isn't the best passage from Harman to raise the point I wish to raise, but I'm short on time and I think this will serve well enough:
"Kant's point about the finitude of human perception and cognition ought to have been broadened into a point about the finitude of fire when it burns a cotton ball without interacting with all the cotton's properties, or the finitude of rain when it strikes the tin without relating to real features of the tin that happen to be irrelevant to rain. In short,
the lead distinction between thought and world must be replaced with one between objects and relations. It is this distinctly non-modern touch in OOO [Object-Oriented Ontology] that leads many modernist (and 'post'-modernist observers) to have a visceral dislike for what they wrongly regard as its bizarre personification of inaninate matter."
--Graham Harman, from
Speculative Realism: An Introduction
I bolded the part above that I wanted to emphasize. Leaving aside whether OOO in all its particulars is a sound philosophy, I've been especially persuaded by Harman (after reading several of his books) that the distinction between thought and world that Kant and other modern thinkers insist on is
not ontologically primary. So, no, I'm not swept away by attempted "proofs" (ha ha) based on transcendental idealism. By the way, I think Harman's use of the terms
modern and
modernist above is due to the influence of Latour. (Latour wrote a book titled
We Have Never Been Modern that I plan to read soon.)